This is where the
secular cycle concept is useful. Like the saeculum it has four phases (see page 33-34). For example in the English case the secular (cycle) Crisis was 1640-1660 and the depression phase was 1640-1730. I am in the process of responding to reviewers on a paper in which I argue for a 1660-1690 depression phase. In my (S&H-influenced) thinking, I see the Glorious Revolution as the event that "solved" the problem of the time (the tussle between monarch and Parliament) and so ended the cycle, allowing a new expansion phase to begin. I see this as analogous to the Wars of the Roses, which ended the previous cycle's depression phase, by resolving the problem of excess elites (by killing a lot of them) allowing a resurgence of state power under Henry VII (that is, a new expansion phase).
Turchin has extended this concept to America, but his book is not out until May. I have read the first half in manuscript (no longer available online). He has a cycle from 1780-1930 and the current cycle beginning in 1930. I don't think he gives phases, I don't know what he has to say about the present era; will have to wait until May.
My take is that a secular (cycle) crisis began with the Panic of 1907. Economic inequality was very high (like today) and it showed up in indices of social unrest which grew worse with time and peaked in a large outburst of instability in the years around 1920. The mood of the country then was what Kinser would call revolutionary. Although it was a revolutionary moment, revolution didn't happen. At the same time we had just fought and won a Great Power war that occurred at the proper time for a Modelski and Thompson Global War. Such a war permits a new hegemonic power to assert itself. The obvious choice was the US, by far the strongest power in economic and financial terms, which are easily converted into military power. But the US did not start acting like a hegemon after WW I.
So we had no revolution and no new hegemon in 1920. Yet just 25 years later we would have both, a political revolution in the New Deal from which emerged the
Third Republic and another world war after which the US emerged as the hegemonic power. So why didn't it happen the first time? My answer is to invoke S&H, the secular (cycle) crisis came during a 3T, so it didn't happen. Instead, the secular (cycle) crisis ended, a depression phase began, during which and we got another event, less (internally) violent, but more politically significant, during which all the things that should have happened before did happen. Why? Because it was a 4T.
The concept I am considering is these two processes, the secular cycle and the saeculum run in parallel. The first is defined by social variables, population, class structure, prices, economic inequality, internal instability etc. The second is defined by generations (as I have posted in another thread). When a secular cycle crisis shows up, if it happens to be a 4T, it gets resolved right away. If it happens during another turning, then you get a longer depression phase.
A test of this model is how do you characterize the Russian 1917 revolution in S&H terms? Turchin has done
secular cycles for Russia. He gives a crisis over 1905-1922 and NO depression phase. According to my model, this would happen only if the revolution happened in a 4T, because then it would get resolved in a hurry shortening the depression phase (or in this case apparently eliminating it).