Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
The reason that I don't answer your questions is because they've been
discussed many times before as you well know, and because you often
festoon your questions with gratuitous personal attacks.
How does it feel? Hypocrisy is a nasty thing.
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
If I were a woman I could get a restraining order and maybe even have you arrested for stalking.
Huh? By asking to have questions actually answered? To ask that you not talk down to everyone? What is up with you?
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
In my 20 .... errr 21 years online -- you see, Sean, I've been online since 1984 -- I've discovered that there are certain types of people whose obsessions are not good to feed.
And you think that saying you are "insufferably pompous" is a hysterical ranting on my part and that you feel insulted by my saying so? Dude, read what you write.
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
For example, you're well aware of the answer to your question about
the Puritan Flip since you were involved in the original discussion,
and you also know you could go to my book on my web site and read
about it there.
I made up the name "Puritan Flip," but all the details of what
happened are from William McLoughlin's 1978 book, Revivals,
Awakenings, and Reform. So it's McLoughlin's Puritan Flip, not
mine. Strauss and Howe have repeatedly identified this book as the
highest authority on the Puritan Awakening, but McLoughlin clearly
and unambiguously says that the Puritan Awakening began around 1604,
with the ascendancy of King James VI to the throne, while Strauss and
Howe have it beginning in 1621, which is considerably later.
So what's the resolution to this inconsistency in Strauss and Howe's
work? McLoughlin provides the answer to that too. He explains how
the Puritan Awakening was a Puritan revolt against the Anglican Church
in the 1600s decade, but it turned into a revolt against Puritanism
when the Pilgrims reached America. That's the Puritan Flip.
Uh, S&H indeed cite McLoughlin as an authority, but obviously disagree with him on dates since they tellingly don't mention the decades of the Puritan Awakening in the paragraph that mentions him [p. 47], wheras a few sentences down they do mention them for other awakenings.
Furthermore, it's been a long time (apx. 11 years) since I've read his
Revivals, Awakenings, and Reform, but didn't McLoughlin have the Puritan Awakening end c. 1640? It may have been 1630. I'm not sure. Regardless, that gives English society as little as two years, at most twelve, to go through a third turning before this alleged "Crisis War" begins. How do you explain that?
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
As I said, I see one of my jobs as correcting the few inconsistencies in Strauss and Howe's brilliant work, so that it will be an academically valid discipline.
How very magnanimous of you.
But you do far more than correct, or not, a "few inconsistencies". You almost completely alter what they define as the function of second and fourth turnings, as I have described in previous posts but you never answer. Are you afraid to? What gives?
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
So, McLoughlin's Puritan flip may be a "hell of a stretch" to you,
but your opinion doesn't particularly count for much. McLoughlin's
opinion counts, and he lays it out in unambiguous detail.
How do I know all this? Because I actually went to the trouble to
read McLoughlin's book!!! I don't just throw out any nonsense that
goes through my head; I actually went to the trouble to research
something before posting it.
You too can do research before asking a question, just like me. Why
don't you read McLoughlin's book to see for yourself, and then post
something intelligent for a change? But I'm sure you won't bother,
because you're more into obsession and stalking.
I wrote a (30+ page) pre-thesis in my graduate program on the Great Awakening and became intimate with McLoughlin's ideas, thank you. But you can arrogantly assume that you are the only one that reads him if it makes you feel better.
And yes, even after knowing what McLoughlin said it still stands that this "flip" of yours explaining the ECW as a 4T is
one hell of a stretch.
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
Could I make a suggestion? You're about to become a new father, and
I know you're very depressed, but you've got to pull yourself
together because your wife and your soon-to-arrive child are going to
need you very much. I'm not the most important person in your life;
they are.
Talk about insulting; and talk (once again) about being pompous. "Very depressed"? First, what does that have to do with not answering my questions? Second, I am not depressed. But while we're playing amateur pyschologist . . . could you be engaging in transference? :wink:
Oh, and you are not the most important person in my life. Hopeful Cynic is. :lol:
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
Let me tell you something about myself. I have a very tough time
making it through the day too, though I make a point of not taking it
out on other people. And a lot of people don't realize that I
actually believe the stuff that's on my web site, but I do, and at
least once or twice a day I get completely overwhelmed by the sadness
of it all, especially since I have a 20 year old son who's going to
be pulled into the vortex of it all, as will Matt and many of the
Millies on this web. Maybe the fact that your child is going to grow
up in that environment is one of the things that's depressing you, as
well it might. But can you begin to understand why, with all that
going on, I really don't want to put up with your anger and hostility
and personal attack crap, and why I really don't care whether your
questions get answered or not? There's just too much else on my
plate.
All very nice. Now, I will recap the questions on the table for your convenience so as to make it easier for you (at end of this post). This discussion is open for all to see. If you are truly honest about this being a thread on "objections" to GD, and that you are academically capable of answering the questions, then I look forward to your answers.
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
By the way, when's your baby due?
Halloween. Thank you for your concern.
Questions for Generational Dynamics
#1
Originally Posted by
Peter Gibbons
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
The fact that WW I and WW II were only 20 years apart was the biggest
problem, but other problems became apparent to anyone who drilled
down into the details.
Why is this a problem? WWII occurred during a period of fundamental institutional change. WWI solved little in terms of that. One is a 4T war and the other is not.
#2
Originally Posted by
Peter Gibbons
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
People criticize me for "leaving S&H behind," but that's completely untrue.
So dispensing with their definition of a fourth turning (to a Crisis War only),adding a fifth turning and fifth archetype to their decidedly four-stroke mechanism, radically simplifying their intergenerational dynamics, and radically changing the dates they identified for turnings and generations (including switching 2T's to 4T's and much more) is not leaving S&H behind?!?!? How is it not?
#3
Originally Posted by
Peter Gibbons
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
I've resolved numerous anomalies, including the Great Depression anomaly, the WW I anomaly,
What anomalies?
#4
Originally Posted by
Peter Gibbons
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
the date contradiction in the Puritan Awakening,
No contradiction. You don't have to move it to somehow remove the English Civil War from it. The ECW was not a 4T war by S&H's definition because it was suffused with "inner-world" cultural turmoil and ultimately solved nothing in the institutional order. By 1660 England was back to having a monarch with Papist inclinations who adored the Divine Right concept and a Parliament very nervous about those qualities. The change came in the Glorious Revolution. What's the problem?
The problem is you don't recognize a fundamental component of S&H's theory which defines what the turnings actually are. To you, all great wars must be Crisis Wars. That's NOT S&H's definition and entirely changes the theory. You have indeed left S&H behind. That may be fine, but to say you are building upon them is factually not correct. If I am wrong, please show me how.
#5
Originally Posted by
Peter Gibbons
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
and the contradiction in the 30-year "Glorious crisis", which
supposedly has no war, and yet begins in 1675 with the bloodiest war
in North American history, and ends in 1704 in the middle of the
bloodiest war in 18th century Europe.
It started in 1675,
in America. It looks like it started later in England. For England, it is likely that the War for Spanish Succession was a 4T war for England and all Western Europe. I don't see the contradiciton. Where is it?
#6
Originally Posted by
Peter Gibbons
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
Thus, the Rebels and Yanks who fought in the Civil War were, by definition, Heroes.
This exemplifies the problem with GD's connection to S&H. They were not "by definition" of the Hero archetype. That archetype requires more than just fighting in a big war -- there's several other components to it, like the type of upbringing, institutional problems, how they are perceived by the other archetypes, and so on. By simplying 4T's to Crisis Wars and centering your theory entirely on Crisis Wars you warp S&H's theory out of all recognition. Is this not so? If not, how?
#7
Originally Posted by
Peter Gibbons
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
That the American Civil War was a 5T war can be found by recomputing
the dates. The Revolutionary war ended in 1782 . . .
In S&H's definition of a 4T, that crisis continued for several years because of the continuation of serious institutional upheaval and reconstruction. There was a nasty depression and a severe constitutional crisis in the 1780's. And the stability of the new constitutional order was questionable until the successful conclusion of the Whiskey Rebellion in 1794. How do you have the 4T end in 1782?
Furthermore, serious, comprehensive religious ferver did not break out until the early 1820's. The items McLoughlin identifies for the very, very 19th century mostly occurred in the hinterlands and were not as broad and deep as what came decades later.
You're reworking to create a "fifth turning" does not fit S&H's basic ideas at all. Is that now evident?
#8
Originally Posted by
Peter Gibbons
Originally Posted by
John J. Xenakis
The optional "Fifth Turning" is a new proposed modification to
Strauss and Howe's theory. Something was needed anyway, because
S&H's theory calls for three 20-year era's between crisis periods,
and most of the six cycles they considered violated their own theory.
The 5T concept is an elegant addition to the theory, and may resolve
a whole collection of contradictions and questions in the original
TFT.
Far more in line with their theory, not to mention far more parsimonious and therefore approved by Mr. Ockham, would just to say that turnings and generations took longer prior to the late modern era due to a later age of net social autonomy. The Civil War anomaly was just a problem with the adjustment from one length to another. No more really necessary. What is your view in light of this?
Also, Mike Alexander has proposed interesting ideas that also discount some basic tenets of S&H's theory but he admits to doing so, and also still keeps pretty true to their dates. Are you now willing to agree that you are actually not in line with S&H?