Of course it is
See?Still, a hundred thousand war deaths within a few days at the beginning of the Battle of the Somme does focus the mind, and at least requires further investigation.
There is an example of what I was referring to as unconscious bias. What you see is genocidal fury. Of course it is.We have the summary of the Battle of Malplaquet, as well as the summary that I posted in a previous message.
http://www.battlefieldanomalies.com/malplaquet/
http://www.fourthturning.com/forum/s...postcount=1453
I looked up a couple of summaries of the Battle of the Somme.
http://www.firstworldwar.com/battles/somme.htm
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_the_Somme_(1916)
Ignoring the number of war deaths for now, what I see at Malplaquet
is a war to the death ("genocidal fury") fought by both sides.
What IS genocidal fury? Genocidal fury is what the violence of a crisis war is seen as. The violence of a non-crisis war is NOT seen as genocidal fury.
The violence of the WSS will be seen as genocidal fury because the WSS is a crisis war.
In contrast, the violence of WW I will not be seen as genocidal fury because WW I is not a crisis war.
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I haven't found a real objective definition for genocidal fury in GD for Historians. In one section you say you are going to provide a definition, but you actually don't. What you do give is a list of nine points that indicate genocidal fury. I give them here.
I also list a number of wars and apply each of the nine to them. Note that WW II gives a score of 8 the highest score of all the wars. It is the "gold standard" of crisis wars. By comparison non-crisis WW I (west) has a score of 3. WW I (east) and the US Civil War have high scores (5) consistent with their being crisis wars, but so does Iraq which does not have genocidal violence war by your reckoning.
However a crisis war like the WSS gets a very low score. If WW I (west) is not genocidal in GD terms than neither are the WSS, FP war or American Revolution.
You also implicitly define genocidal fury in your definition of a crisis war:Looking at the four points in the crisis war algorithm, the only one that is capable of inflicting horror upon a population sufficient to traumatize it is point (2) which deals with genocidal fury. Based on this one might define genocidal fury as follows:Crisis wars are cyclic within a society, region or nation. They're the most horrible kinds of wars. They're so horrible and they traumatize a nation so much that there's unanimous agreement to do everything possible to prevent any such war from ever happening again.
genocidal fury war violence that is so horrible and traumatizes a nation so much that there's unanimous agreement to do everything possible to prevent it from ever happening again.
Here the key is trauma. Did a war's violence traumatize a population? For example did the WSS traumatize the population?
The central argument you make for the WSS being a crisis war and WW I (west) not is the battle of Malplaquet versus WW I battles like the Somme or Verdun. To argue that somehow Malplaquet was somehow conducted in a more genocidal way than the Somme is silly. So what? Only a small fraction of all French families could have had a son or father at the battle of Malaplaquet because the size of the forces was so small. Sixty percent of Frenchmen of military age were either killed, wounded or captured in WW II. Nothing remotely like this could have happened in the WSS with the much small armies of those days.
A better approach would be to look for indirect evidence of trauma wrt to the WSS. You will find it in what happened after the war. During the late 17th century France fought a series of wars. None of them traumatized the nation's leaders sufficiently to get them to stop fighting more wars until the WSS. For 25 years, there was peace. This observation implies trauma, at least amongst the ruling class who makes policy. This gives the support to the WSS as a crisis war.
But this also supports the idea of genocidal fury in WW I. Using the objective material presented in GD for Historians, I cannot see how one can include the WSS as an example of genocidal fury and not WW I west.
Instead of addressing the issue (what elements might an objective method for finding crisis wars have), you mainly attempt to justify your prior assessments made apparently based on your own subjective opinion on these matters by bring up tidbits like the Xmas truce in WW I. Really. The Xmas truce is a blip in a war that killed or scarred six out of ten Frenchmen. People excoriate the French and British for not standing up to Hitler. They just had a crisis war, they would do anything to avoid another one--even appease Hitler. Not only does WW I obvious traumatic violence, its shows textbook case of a prior crisis war making a people not willing to engage in another one.
You argue that timelines merge. For this to happen means somebody's timeline gets squeezed (that is, crisis wars can occur close together if timelines are merging). Thus, an Iraq traumatized by a crisis war in the 1980's can have another one today because they didn't choose war--it chose them. As you point out the US is ripe for another crisis war. The US as a rule doesn't endure genocidal fury, it inflicts it on others (like the Germans and Japanese in WW II) As Kissinger says, the US didn't do enough in Afghanistan--so we went into Iraq. That is, the US did not engage in sufficient genocidal fury in Afghanistan and so went to Iraq to engage in some more. This is what GD says nations DO when a certain amount of time has passed since the last time they engaged in genocidal fury.
Similar the Iraqis, Hitler forced war on Britain and France and they ended up in another crisis war. Having had a recent crisis war doesn't protect you from someone else engaging in genocidal fury on you.