The reason that's a problem is that it means that the Crimean War
cannot have been Russia's crisis war. This makes sense anyway, since
Russia fought the war poorly. However, people who have criticized
the choice of the Crimean War as a crisis war have always argued that
the real crisis war came later, with Russia's emancipation of the
serfs in 1861. For example, here's what someone called "bg115" (a
Millennial named Billy Jeffick) posted here in August 2003:
Based on the research on Nihilism, Russia's crisis war must have come
earlier than the Crimean War -- somewhere in the 1940s. But I can't
find anything that resembles a crisis.
Does anyone have any thoughts on this?