Originally Posted by
Brian Rush
I still think that business of "rightful" ownership is the crux of a lot of the disagreement. On what basis is something "rightfully" owned? This is not a simple question, and deserves better than a simple answer.
First off, and to repeat from way back, "ownership" implies coercion and threat of force. To say "this is mine" is to say, "I alone am entitled to use this, and anyone else who does so without my permission will be punished." That is what defines property. The threat of force may be made by the owner, or by the community or the state on the owner's behalf, but it must be made, otherwise there is no property.
On the very simplest level, therefore, property is the seizure of unowned goods and the assertion of privileged use backed by a threat of force.
If we wish to apply less barbaric rules to who owns what (and generally we do), then we must restrict the application of force to those instances which comply with those rules, and refuse to do so otherwise. Also, the situation becomes much more complex when all goods are owned, and so acquisition of property becomes the transfer of goods from one person's ownership to another's, rather than the seizure of unowned goods. In that case, we establish rules whereby property may "legitimately" be transferred, apply force to protect those instances, and apply it to discourage all other forms of property acquisition, which we thereby define as "theft."
Thus, it is somewhat inaccurate to call "theft" the acquisition of property without the owner's permission. Rather, theft is the acquisition of property against the rules governing such acquisition. Sometimes property can be acquired with the owner's permission and still be stolen. We use a different word than "theft" in such cases -- we call it "fraud" -- but it's essentially the same thing. Also, sometimes property can be acquired without the owner's permission without it being theft. For example, if a lawsuit grants a sum in judgment, it's safe to say that the sum is taken without its owner's permission, but this is not theft. The only consistent rule is that if property is transferred against the rules for such transfer, it is not legitimate and may be corrected by force.
Now let's consider the way wealth is produced and ownership of it acquired in our economy. (Again, it's important to consider the real world in the process of forming our moral judgments. Moral principles formed outside that consideration are the equivalent of pure mathematics, and may or may not apply to the reality we actually experience.)
Wealth is produced collectively, always. People work together to create wealth, applying thought and effort to natural resources. The resulting wealth is divided among those who work to produce it, according to rules. It's impossible to say in any definitive fashion how much person A contributes to the production of wealth as compared to person B. Thus, a common libertarian principle, that of ownership deriving from labor to add value, becomes useless as a practical matter, for we are never in any real-life case able to determine how much of the wealth produced is generated by one person's labor compared to another's. A different principle than this is required.
In actual practice, we determine ownership by who owns the natural and man-made capital required to produce wealth, not by those who work to add value. The people doing the labor to create the wealth are not entitled to a share of it a priori; it belongs to the owner of the capital, who must buy labor if he needs more of it to produce the wealth than he can supply on his own, but the wealth ultimately produced still belongs to him. In that way, the workers in effect receive a share, but that's not how we think of it. Rather, the work to produce the wealth is treated as a commodity, and is transferred to the owner of the capital just like any other commodity, in exchange for an agreed-upon price. The owner of the capital then owns the labor as well, and so owns the wealth produced with both. Often, this system results in severe inequities. One may rejoice in those inequities as Fruitcake does, or attempt to ameliorate them through government action while accepting the fundamentals of teh system, as Bob Butler would do. One may also propose a more radical change that would hope to eliminate the inequities at the source.
But if one does propose such radical changes, its incumbent on one to pay attention to real-world, practical reality, and consider how such a radically new system would work. Because if it would not, it doesn't matter how righteous and principled it is, it's still a bad idea. That was the problem with Marxism: great in concept, but flawed in practice.
I want to add here that anarchism, as I see it, suffers from a misunderstanding quite analogous to that of Marx. Marx' most basic mistake was the belief that all conflict was class conflict, and so if social classes were eliminated through economic egalitarianism, all conflict would disappear, the state's raison d'etre would be gone, and the state would wither away. In fact, while some conflict certainly IS class-based, not all of it is, and so the elimination of social classes does not eliminate conflict; moreover, social classes tend to form over time without constant collective effort to prevent this -- all of which keeps the state from withering away as predicted.
Anarchism suffers from a similar error, the belief that all aggression and economic inequity derives from the state. Quite obviously some aggression and some economic inequity does, but not all nor, I would say, even most of it, and the state acts to suppress more of these things than it causes.