Was the universe "obviously" in existence before -- not just humans, but all life? Let's construct the epistemic order of events.
1) People experience reality.
2) Regularities are observed in the reality experienced, both from observer to observer and from event to event.
3) Models and theories are constructed to allow predictions based on these regularities.
4) A world pre-existing #1 is consistent with these models and theories.
So really, the only evidence we have that the universe preceded us is a set of mathematical equations and scientific models that we created based on regularities found in subjective experience. It's a fourth-level extrapolation from the primary data, and the subjective experience came first in terms of causation.
In terms of epistemic causation, the world does not precede us even if it does precede us in time, and even if it precedes us in time we have no way to know that it does so in any form that we would recognize. The objective existence of the world is an assumption not only without evidence but without even the possibility of evidence, since (once again) we would have to observe the world when no one is observing it to know one way or the other.
Again, the point here is not to answer the question. The question can't be answered: we have no way to determine whether the world exists objectively or not. The point is to recognize that that is the case. Once we do, we are freed from a particular illusion, and able to
use the idea of objective reality where it is useful (as it often is), without being
bound and limited by it.